Why is it, in the Bible, that a maiden who loses her virginity is always considered a harlot? Is it because maidens cannot be seduced except by the offer of money? Is it possible that, in those olden times, women were a lot tougher than now, and they only had sex for practical reasons, like financial self-interest? When Rebekkah married Isaac, sight unseen, she knew he had a lot of money and could take good care of her, because his fathers slave had put a very expensive gold bracelet on her wrist. (Genesis 24:22)
Maybe the problem is with our understanding of the word harlot. Maybe what harlotry really means is the putting of your own short-term desires above the needs and welfare of your family, your folk, and above the desires of God. Harlotry cannot be merely paid sexual relations, because husbands are expected to give their wives a regular allowance in exchange for their sexual allegiance. In fact, such a paid relationship is held in higher esteem than concubinage, where the relationship is almost purely sexual, with no exchange of money or other valuable considerations. A husband shows his deepest love and trust for his wife when he gives her his paycheck. (Exodus 21:10)